Subject: draft-ietf-l3vpn-ospf-2547-01.txt Query

From: "nabendu das" <[email-masked]>
Date: Wed, 05 May 2004 15:21:41 +0530

HI
In section 4.1 it is stated --

   1) Every PE attached to a particular OSPF network MUST function as an
   OSPF area 0 router. This allows it to distribute inter-area routes to
   the CE via Type 3 LSAs.

   -- Why PE MUST function as an OSPF area 0 router.... ????
   What is the issue if PE acts as ABR of the area to which PE/CE link 
belongs and
   distribute inter-area routes to the attached CE via Type 3 LSAs????

   2) If the OSPF domain has any area 0 routers (other than the PE
   routers), then at least one of those MUST be a CE router, and MUST
   have an area 0 link to at least one PE router.

   -- Plz explain the above statement ...Why at least one of those MUST be a 
CE
   router and why MUST have an area 0 link to at least one PE router????

TIA
Nabendu.

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From: Eric Rosen <[email-masked]>
Date: Fri, 07 May 2004 11:33:39 -0400

> Why PE MUST function as an OSPF  area 0 router.... ????  What is the issue
> if PE acts as  ABR of the area to which PE/CE  link belongs and distribute
> inter-area routes to the attached CE via Type 3 LSAs???? 

The PEs function as  area 0 routers in that they are  part of the inter-area
backbone. 

If there is also a "native" area  0, then one of the "native" area 0 routers
must connect to a PE router, or else there would be two inter-area backbones
that weren't connected.